Hymns and praise songs are filled with theology. Sometimes the theology is good, and other times the theology is bad. It seems like a common trend in current praise songs is to refer to Christ as “my king.” Some might say that this is splitting hairs, but one lesson I learned in grad school was that words have meanings. Christians should not just say things because they make for a good rhyme or they feel good to sing. Every word that comes from a Christian’s mouth should be based on the Word of God. The same is true of Christ being referred to as “my king” or “your king” or even the “king of the church.” These regal themes in Scripture need to be examined in light of what Scriptures reveals about the Church.[1] As a side note, this topic deals not only with Christ kingship, it also deals with His Kingdom. A parallel issue that could be raised is the idea of a present Kingdom of God. To stay focused, the subject of Christ’s kingship will only be dealt with.
To understand this issue better, one must understand Christ’s relationship to the Church. Did Christ enter a covenant relationship with the Church? No mention of one is made like the covenantal relationship that God enacted with Abraham and Israel. The Church has a unique relationship with Christ. He is the Head of the Church, the Bridegroom of the Church, and the Chief Shepherd of the Church. He is said to be our Advocate, Mediator, and High Priest. He is referred to as Lord, Christ, and God. But not one time is He called King in reference to the Church. This is not to say that Christ is not a king. On the contrary, Christ is referred to the King of the Jews, the King of Israel, and the King of kings. Yet these references all deal with a future eschatological kingship consummated in the Kingdom Age. So the issue in referring to Christ as King is to say that He is now reigning, that His Kingdom has been established, and that the present age is a realized form of eschatological events.
One needs only to read the New Testament to see that Christ is never said to have ascended to a throne in heaven. On the contrary, Christ has ascended to the right hand of the Father and is awaiting the time where He will come back to reign. Psalm 110:1 makes this plain by saying “Sit at My right hand until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet.” Verse 2 follows the “until” and speaks of the time when the Messiah will begin His reign. Yet so often, the plain language of this text is ignored and scholars refer to Acts 2 to try to group this text with others.
To use Acts 2 to show how Peter equated the right hand of God as a throne (Davidic or not) one must ignore the main purpose of the Pentecost sermon. The apostles did not preach to proclaim that Jesus was now reigning. The apostolic preaching was centered around the death and resurrection of Christ. Some try to show how Acts 2:30-36 speaks of Christ’s reign on a throne in heaven due to the Davidic Covenant texts quoted by Peter. But if the emphasis of his preaching is the resurrection of Christ, then that must always be kept in mind. Peter mentions the Davidic Covenant to prove the resurrection because only by the resurrection of Christ could the Davidic Covenant be fulfilled (vs. 29-31). Peter even says that he is showing the “resurrection of the Christ” (vs. 31) and not the enthronement of Christ as king.
Some also play word games by matching one word with another word in a different context and allow that to drive their interpretation. Verses 30 & 34 of Acts 2 is a prime example. Verse 30 quotes from Psalm 132:11 speaking of the Davidic throne and uses the word “sit” (καθίζω). Verse 34 quotes from Psalm 110:1 speaking of the position of the right hand of God and uses the word “sit” (κάθημαι). The logic in this word matching is that Peter was using similar terminology to say that the seat in verse 30 is equal to the seat in verse 34. Thus, the position of the right hand of God is a reference to the Davidic throne or at least Davidic rule. This is the position maintained by Progressive Dispensationalism as well as most if not all Covenant Pre-millennialists. Yet the hermeneutical principle of this word matching is sketchy at best. Also, since the words are not exactly the same, it would seem more likely that Peter was making a point by not using the same word. Had he meant to emphasize the word match, it would be more likely that he would use the same word.[2]
Am I splitting hairs? Maybe, but our words have meaning. If we are singing songs about Christ that are not theologically accurate, can we actually be worshipping God in spirit and truth? This subject of the Kingdom is highly debated and this has only been a condensed look – a smaller issue within a much larger one. I want to see discussion on this, but given the topic of the article it would be best to restrict the comments to Christ’s kingship only and not necessarily the Kingdom (although it is difficult to split the two subjects since one is predicated on the other). If we can come to a consensus on Christ’s kingship, then maybe a consensus can be made on His Kingdom.
Timothy L. Decker
[1] The organism of the Church is defined as the body of believers from Pentecost in Acts 2, where Spirit Baptism (which places one into the Body of Christ-the Church, cf. 1 Cor. 12:13) began (Acts 1:5 &Acts 11:15-16), until the Rapture of the Church (1 Thess. 4:13-18) where this dispensation of the Church will end.
[2] While it could be raised that the words are very similar in meaning, their lexical form are obviously different. Also, καθίζω can be transitive or intransitive while κάθημαι can only be transitive. This sets the 2 words apart even farther than their lexical forms.
13 comments:
Tim great article, I really like that topic. Also I think I was able to change my password. So I'll post midmonth.
I noticed that your article does not address the verse that contains the obvious answer to the question presented in your article: Col. 1:13. That verse says we are translated into Christ's Kingdom (A kingdom that Christ is over).
If it was so obvious, why doesn't Col. 1:13 not say that Christ is the King of the Church? In fact, we just have a statement of being transferred into His Kingdom. Being consistent w/ the rest of Scripture concerning the His Kingdom, this is a reference to the Millennial Kingdom.
This can also be easily taken as a positional truth (which Paul is so fond of doing). That verse also doesn't have to be taken that Christ's Kingdom is presently in fruition.
Not to mention that the context must be taken into account. Paul is dealing with being under the authority of Satan previously. Paul could also have a similar idea in mind when speaking of Christ's Kingdom - not even Millennial but just dominion or Lordship. This is within the semantical domain of "kingdom."
So it seems you would have to stretch the text to make it say what is not explicitly said. As to the "obvious answer," it doesn't seem so obvious.
Using your logic, if this is the millennial kingdom, why doesn't he say that? This cannot be the millennial kingdom unless the millennial kingdom is active somewhere - that statement that you made was actually a progressive dispensationalist tenant. They do hold that this kingdom is the messianic (millennial) kingdom. I know you are not progressive, but that statement is totally unbiblical.
Nate, I just posed a few possibilities (both of which I think have merit to them). But if this is the MK, and Paul is stating a positional truth, then there is no issue. The difference between what I am saying and what PDism might say is that the Kingdom has already begun. I would not agree. Positional statements are made often without the thing being actual in the present. That is the point behind positional truths.
And to answer your question as to "why he doesn't he say that," I would have to retort by asking, say what? He called it the Kingdom. That is what they knew it the MK as. It is founded in OT eschatology (primarily from Daniel).
I believe that word "translated" is in the aorist tense - although I may be mistaken, I don't have my greek text available and I am running entirely off of memory. My only point is that whatever kingdom we are translated into must be active because it was a past event - we WERE translated into the kingdom. If that kingdom is not active, we could not be translated into it. If this is the Mill. Kingdom, as I said in my original statement, it would need to be spiritually active now since we know it is not literally active.
A big problem is that theologians are reacting so strongly to PD that they are going to other extremes. The Bible clearly says that Christ is in charge of some Kingdom right now, not the mill. kingdom obviously, but what if there is another aspect of basilea in the bible? I can't say what it would be, it is not revealed, but at the same time, this verse goes to show that it is not un-scriptural to state that Christ is King, there is just as much evidence to the pro as to the con.
Now, I think the context of the song is extremely important as some songs clearly demonstrate that the "Kingship" they are speaking of is the Mill. Kingdom, in which case it would be wrong. At the very least, whether or not you call Christ a king or not, if you are not treating him exactly like a king, you are wrong. We give Him obeisance, we give him titles of royalty like "Lord," we do exactly everything that He says and He commands us to do.
I truly enjoy a spirited conversation like this! Thanks for gtiving me the time!
"If this is the Mill. Kingdom, as I said in my original statement, it would need to be spiritually active now since we know it is not literally active."
Nate, if this is a positional truth, then that negates your argument. And in all likelihood, considering Paul's use of positional truths, this seems to be the best way to take the passage.
Plus the fact that "translated" is aorist is only speaking of the time when this translating took place. It does not have to make the Kingdom active at this time. Especially if we are observing a positional truth.
This is one reason why I offered another possible interpretation. Because "kingdom" may not be the force behind the idea (Millennial or otherwise). Dominion, authority, and Lordship is what we are translated in at salvation.
And Nate, I am enjoying this as well. I have to wonder, do we know each other, or have we met? Where would you place yourself on the theological spectrum considering the Christ, the Church, Israel, and eschatology?
Yes we have met, I am extremely conservative when it comes to the Bible but it sure is fun to play the devil's advocate ;).
I am a student at Piedmont, about to graduate and start grad classes. Actually, I have had this conversation with many many people at piedmont and have defended your arguments thoroughly. I just bounce things like this to see how others refute certain errors. If you see my posts, please know that I am as dispensational as they come. My wife and I have a 6-month old and I would just cry tears of joy if his first word was "dispensationalism."
I attend church at Maranatha Baptist Church in W-S.
Thought we had met. Good to talk to you Nate. Sorry I am not doing a great job in presenting a solid defense.
Please feel free to add anything that I left out (I don't mind learning from a current MABS student :-) ). I would love to hear your view and defense on Col. 1:13.
PS - are you looking to be a blog writer? I would love to have another author (even if you are a Pittmanite ;-) ).
I actually have a blog:
www.therightpointofview.com
Tim, I enjoyed reading your interaction on this topic with Nate. I was wondering if you see the church as a kingdom of priests (1Peter 1:9) and that all members in the church are kings (Rev 1:6). If so, wouldn't the designation by Paul of Christ as King of Kings be legitmate in relationship to the church (1Tim. 6:15)?
Thanks for the comment Brian.
As for 1 Peter, I tend to agree w/ Fruchtenbaum's view that it was written to Jewish Christians (cf. 1:1 and the diaspora). I'm not sure what passage you are referring to though b/c I don't see 1 Pet. 1:9 applying to the issue at hand. If you are referring to 2:9, then that would be appropriate considering the quotation from Exodus and the Jewish audience. So no big deal there.
Rev. 1:6 is a bit more difficult. First there is a textual variant issue: "king" or "kingdom." The next is the grammar. If the words "kingdom" and "priests" are not to be separated by a comma (some modern translations do), then it would simply be a refernce to an order of "kingdom priests" (both accusatives). This would be consistent w/ Isaiah's prophecy having some Gentiles in the priestly order during the MK (cf. Isa. 66:20-21).
As for 1 Tim. 6:15, you have to realize that I don't mind speaking of Jesus as a king or even the king of the Jews; just not MY king. But this verse is set in the future w/ a future tense verb. So it would put the title of King of Kings and Lord of Lords into the future (cf. Rev. 19:16 when CHrist comes as K of K & L o L). And the context is dealing with the 2nd Coming which would spur such a declaration in vs. 15. THat is not to mention that this verse could very well be speaking of the Father (but I will skip that for now).
Even still, Jesus was declared to be the King of the Jews on the cross. So in that way, He is the King. Just not the King of the Church in a Kingdom sense. But He is no doubt the Lord.
Tim, I knew I should have proofed my comment before sending it :-) thanks for catching the wrong 1Pet reference. I think Fructembaum's splitting of the body of Christ in two is very unhelpful. But even if he is correct, doesn't 1Pet 2:9suggest that Jesus is at least the King of the kingdom of priests of that part of the church? As for Rev. 1:6, I am not sure how a normal reading of John's view of himself in that verse as well as in vs. 9 and the view of Christ in vs. 5 and of the elders in 5:10 would not give show a 1st century church reader of those verses the kingdom imagery that is being associated with the Church, of which Christ would of course be the supreme ruler.
And even if the physical manifestation of that kingdom is yet future, it appears that the Paul had no problem holding the reality of it out to the church as a truth they should relate to now (Acts 28:31, Rom. 14:17, 1Cor. 4:20. For if the Church participates in the Millennium and Christ is the King then, then would not Christ also be the king of the Church? So what's the problem of saying Christ is my King, even if I am using it only in the positional truth sense? Am I not also already glorfied in Christ?
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